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| Author | Topic |
| Star | Posted - 11 December 2000 21:47
How come some people wait six hours after eating meat and some wait five hours and within the sixth hour, they eat milk products? |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 11 December 2000 23:51
There are 2 reasons for waiting 6 hours: 1) The taste of the meat lasts 6 hours in some very small way, and 2) Particles of meat remain in your mouth up to six hours after eating. Sometmes, only one of the 2 reasons will apply, such as where you chew meat and spit it out, (only #2 will apply), but one reason even ithout the other is enough to obligate you to wait 6 hours. This is a matter of Minhag, custom. There are different interpretation of what "six hours" means: does it mean "for 6 hours the meat remains in your mouth", for instance, or perhaps it means "for up to the 6th hour the meat remains in your mouth". It is this difference of interpretation that created the "into the 6th hour" custom. |
| Star | Posted - 20 December 2000 9:04
What if, after I eat meat, I drink a lot and then wait 5 hours and then eat milk products? You can't say that particles of meat were left because i took so many drinks! You say this is a minhag to wait 5 hours. Well, can I adapt this minhag? My brother did and my father doesn't care. |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 20 December 2000 10:00
If you already are accustomed to waiting 6 hours you would have to make Hatoras Nedorim to switch customs. |
| 21 | Posted - 21 December 2000 0:32
If you though that the halacha is that you must wait 6 hours and never knew that into the 6th hour was a legitamate opinion would you still need hataras nedarim based on what R moshe says in YD-1-47 regarding chalav yisroel that one who thought that chalav hacompanies was assur midinah "ain aluv din neder mitzad minhago" ? |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 21 December 2000 0:36
What you are quoting from Rav Moshe is based on a halchah in Shulchan Aruch based on a gemora. If you did something because you mistakenly thought that the Halachah demanded you do it, but you were mistaken and there is no such Halachah, then you do nto have to make hatoras Nedorim because oyur behavior was a plain mistake. But in the case of different Minhagim that does not apply. There is no "mistake" invovled since both practices are legitimate and correct, and so your practice is not a mistake, even if you did not know your options. As long as you did something for Minhag reasons, even if others od differently and oyu could have done differently as well, you have a Minhag and must do Hataras Nedorim. |
| Lynx | Posted - 04 September 2001 21:20
What about waiting three hours? |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 04 September 2001 22:22
What about three hours? |
| em in hot water | Posted - 05 December 2001 21:56
this past summer i was in europe and spent a shabbos in amsterdam. they have a very interesting schedule. im not criticizing it, chas v'shalom, just questioning it. on shabbos day they have their afternoon meal at like 4 in the afternoon, a regular shabbos meal. then, an hour later, they have a full seudah shlishi- with dairy, despite the fact that they have eaten meat an hour before. if that okay?? i didnt know if i should go according to the baal habayis, or keep to my minhag, which is to wait 6 hours. since im not married, and its not my husband's minhag that im questioning, i did not go along with the baal habayis's minhag. he was then deeply insulted, so i felt compelled to eat milchig with them an hour after the shabbos lunch. if i recall correctly, i think i may have learnt once in school that the amount of time waited is not relevant, just the next time someone would eat dairy after meat is in the next meal. but why is it that somtimes the bli'os lose their flavor in 6 hours, as opposed to my situation, where they 'supposedly' lost their flavor in just 1 hour??? |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 05 December 2001 23:01
Some Dutch people have a Minhag to only wait one hour. This is because they were accustomed to eating meals very close to each other, and it would have been impossible for them to develop the Minhag to wait longer. It is legitimate for them, according to most people, but you should have followed your own Minhag. If you hold 6 hours, then it is important to keep that. The AMsterdam people have no call to be insulted because you are following what the Halachah demands you follow. |
| EM | Posted - 17 February 2002 22:09
i understand. thank you very much, much abliged. just one more question- what happens when one slices a horseradish with a milchig knife, then absentmindedly uses a fleishig knife to continue cutting it. what is the status of the horseradish, considering the fact that it's a 'davar charif'? have the different knifes rendered it treif?, or an inch has to be cut off the surface..? |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 18 February 2002 0:31
There is a disagreement in the Poskim regarding whether a Davar Charif (such as an onion) that gets cut with a knife absorbs the Blios ( = meat or dairy status) through and through or just deep enough that you can grasp it there. We are Machmir like both opinions. Therefore we assume that the entire onion is treif. If the volume of the onion was 60x that of the knife, only the "part that can be grasped" needs to be taken off. (You measure the 60x against the part of the knife blade that actually penetrated the food. If you do nto know how much of the blade penetrated, you must measuer against the volume of the whole blade). |
| Chaim C-M | Posted - 05 May 2002 23:47
Isn't there a minhag of Yekkes to wait only three hours after meat before eating milchig? |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 06 May 2002 3:02
Yes there is. It is a legitimate Minhag, but valid only for those whose community has that Minhag. |
| HatzlachaRabah | Posted - 08 May 2002 22:08
MOD- what do u mean when you say that only if the minhag of the community is so? a) what is considered the community?; does it have to be the whole community, or only that Kehila? b) the community meaning the one you live in at the moment, or the one that u like come from. (eg some1's family lives at a city for like 30 years and holds 3 hours, then moves to a place that holds 6, do the yhold 3 or 6)?? <HatzlachaRabah> |
| MODERATOR | Posted - 13 May 2002 22:00
It has to be Halachicly considered the Mnhag that you must follow. Technically there is Halachah that you inherit the Minhag of your parents. the reason you follwo the Minhag of your parents is because your home i.e. your parents' home, is considered your "makom", and is therefore binding as Minhag Hamakom. In a situation where you become part of another Kehilla / Makom (like a woman marrying a husband with a diff Minhag from hers) you would therefore follow the Minhag of your new "Makom." But in the absence of a Halachicly valid "changing of your Makom", you would be obligated to follow your own Minhag, i.e. the Minhag of your parents. In a sitation like America, where there are so many different Minhagim all over, the Halchaha is that you follow your old Minhag, meanign the Minhag of where you "came from" (i.e. your parents' minhag), since there is no established official Minhag America. |
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